Christianity subjugates & oppresses other faiths when it is NOT true to its principles; Islam does it when it IS true to its principles.
— Dr. Michael L. Brown (@DrMichaelLBrown) June 22, 2017
Is this true? More specifically, what kind of evidence could be brought to bear to sustain or falsify Brown’s assertion?
Let’s begin with two important facts.
Fact One: there are versions of Christianity that do subjugate and oppress other faiths.
Fact Two: there are versions of Islam that do not subjugate and oppress other faiths.
So what basis does Brown provide to say that all the versions of Christianity that oppress other faiths are not true to Christian principles while all versions of Islam that oppress other faiths are true to Islamic principles?
Put another way, how does Brown avoid the true Scotsman fallacy?
